Reconstruction talk:Proto-Balto-Slavic/legtei

, I haven't thought about that until now, but is it really correct to derive from the thematic present? The only attested descendant is 🇨🇬 which is perfective, with present forms exhibiting a nasal infix. LIV (p. 398) actually lists the Slavic infinitive form under "root aorist" and the present conjugation under "né/n̥-present". Clearly, Slavic has mashed various conjugation patterns, so I'm not sure how to classify them. A similar thing occurs with >  (pf)? Should we derive them from a present root, even though their meaning is perfective? Bezimenen (talk) 23:28, 4 November 2019 (UTC)
 * The aspect of Slavic verbs also has no relation to PIE aspect. Rather, the PIE perfective appears in Slavic as the aorist, while the PIE imperfective becomes the Slavic present tense. The infinitive is not usually indicative of the PIE present formation. There are no thematic infinitives, ye-infinitives or n-infix infinitives after all, and the infinitive has its origin in a deverbal noun that affixed directly to the root. So really, every Slavic verb is a combination of at least three different PIE lexemes, and could be said to "descend" in part from all three. —Rua (mew) 13:12, 5 November 2019 (UTC)