Reconstruction talk:Proto-Germanic/gardaz

How do we know this is from *ǵʰortós and not *ǵʰórdʰos? The former mismatches the accent on Greek. --Ivan Štambuk (talk) 04:18, 8 August 2013 (UTC)
 * We can't know that from Germanic alone. But how faithful is the Greek accent? I remember reading somewhere that it was modified rather severely on nouns in many cases. 11:10, 8 August 2013 (UTC)
 * Actually it's conservative on nouns, but not on verbs. It retains PIE accent but with the limitation of at most three syllables from the end of the word. There is a disagreement with Sanskrit in some 10-20% of cases and in that case Verner's law or Balto-Slavic settle the matter. However, if two reconstructions are possible, the one which doesn't introduce a disagreement with Greek should be taken as the proper one, unless there is some other specific reason why it's *ǵʰortós. --Ivan Štambuk (talk) 18:11, 8 August 2013 (UTC)