Reconstruction talk:Proto-Indo-European/úd


 * is said by the LSJ (admittedly not the most reliable source, etymology-wise) to come from . It seems to make more sense semantically. --Barytonesis (talk) 13:41, 17 November 2017 (UTC)
 * Although the etymology at explains the semantic shift. But about the Latin form, how do we explain the devoicing? --Barytonesis (talk) 13:46, 17 November 2017 (UTC)
 * From what I've read, that theory, which is actually quite old, has all but been debunked. --Victar (talk) 17:04, 17 November 2017 (UTC)
 * I defer to you on that. But what about the unexplained devoicing in Latin? --Barytonesis (talk) 17:16, 17 November 2017 (UTC)
 * From De Vann: "WH suggest that *uderos may have analogically become *uteros when became,  phonetically. But according to Hilmarsson 1993: 215, tr can have arisen in the oblique cases where syncope took place in front of a long vowel: *uderī > *udrī > *utrī." --Victar (talk) 17:27, 17 November 2017 (UTC)
 * Thanks! --Barytonesis (talk) 17:41, 17 November 2017 (UTC)