Reconstruction talk:Proto-Indo-European/gʷelbʰ-

Shouldn't this be at nom. sg. form? I don't know enough PIE to move it myself. Thanks. —Aryamanarora (मुझसे बात करो) 18:12, 11 May 2017 (UTC)

IIr. forms
, something's wrong with the IIr. forms. If they had *e-grade, we'd see palatalization. So there must be different grades at play. — JohnC5 04:35, 31 October 2017 (UTC)
 * Whoops, that passed by me. Just out of curiousity, would  work? Or would the root itself need to be changed? -- mādhavpaṇḍit (talk) 05:44, 31 October 2017 (UTC)
 * I fixed it up. — JohnC5
 * Thanks for that! I can only find 🇨🇬 gárbha though (with accent on the stem). —Aryaman (मुझसे बात करो)
 * Yeah, I'm a goofus. — JohnC5 06:48, 1 November 2017 (UTC)
 * Thanks!! -- mādhavpaṇḍit (talk) 08:26, 1 November 2017 (UTC)

What's going on with the Greek form(s)?
I know it's based on Beekes, and Beekes knows his stuff, but I'm wondering what the cause of the δ- in Anlaut is for the Greek forms. Wouldn't we expect a β- < *gw- (like βαίνω < *gwem-)? What am I missing here? Vindafarna (talk) 16:18, 3 September 2022 (UTC)


 * Labiovelars always turn into dentals before front vowels. βαίνω is from the zero-grade, hence *gʷm instead of gʷem, and syllabic nasals usually become /a/ in Greek. — Soap — 22:21, 30 May 2023 (UTC)