Reconstruction talk:Proto-Indo-European/mosgʰos

Why does Indo-Iranian show *ǰʰ? Shouldn't it be *gʰ? Dghmonwiskos (talk) 20:39, 14 April 2018 (UTC)
 * It's because it's in a cluster. According to User:Victar/Wiktionary:About_Proto-Iranian, the development is >  >  > . Also, the descendants reflect, not . —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान) 22:35, 14 April 2018 (UTC)
 * Hmm, now that I look at it I see that the Avestan is mazga, which reflects 🇨🇬. It could be an Indo-Aryan development in that case. —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान) 22:37, 14 April 2018 (UTC)
 * : It's not necessary for there to be just one PII form. The Iranian descendants have clearly retained the velar. Both and  could have existed as they are both equally derivable from . -- माधवपंडित (talk) 01:35, 15 April 2018 (UTC)