Reconstruction talk:Proto-Uralic/tinä

Inflected forms
What can be said about the inflection of this word? Did it already have the irregular alternation of *ä with *u as Finnic does? If not, what is the origin of this? —CodeCat 12:37, 29 August 2015 (UTC)
 * The short answer is "unclear". A marginally longer answer is that there have been various speculations, e.g. that the Finnic alternation would be due to e.g. to some kind of contamination with dual forms (so something like sg. *tinä vs. du. *tinu?), but these are hard to get any solid evidence for. --Tropylium (talk) 18:51, 29 August 2015 (UTC)