Reconstruction talk:Proto-West Germanic/skrikkōn

, so you wrote, "i > e can be explained as lowering, but there is no explanation for e > i". 1. How would you explain the lowering? 2. The raising can be explained through i-umlaut from the North Sea variant, can it not? -- 17:04, 12 September 2021 (UTC)
 * The lowering can be explained as part of a-umlaut, which sometimes affects *i as well. i-umlaut doesn't occur in class 2 weak verbs in any Ingvaeonic languages that I know of. —Rua (mew) 13:47, 13 September 2021 (UTC)