Talk:μαλάκων

does not exist
I write this note, because i find many similar cases of wrong-wrong forms (e.g. at Cat:misspellings and elsewhere). When a lexicographer says of a greek word that it does not have an inflectional form (here a genitive pl.), he refers to usage. Let us suppose for a moment that it DOES have a pl.Gen: Then, we construct it in a grammatically correct way. Note, that the 'grammatically correct way' comes naturally to a native speaker. He will construct any word, according to his inner grammar. Finally, are we making pages for the thousands of non-used genitives? (Reverse happens with non-used plurals: they DO have a grammatically correct hypothetical plural). sarri.greek (talk) 09:17, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
 * Here, for μαλάκας, DSMG gives a declension paradigm (inflected like O3 ταμίας equivalent to our category:τουρίστας) with the note: without genitive plural.
 * HAD there been a pl.gen, it would have been μαλακών according to their O3 table. Not μαλάκων as in nouns like φύλακας - pl.Gen. των φυλάκων. Adding to confusion: μαλακών coincides with gen.pl. of adjective μαλακός.
 * if we wish to make a page for a 'disputed' gentive, that would be μαλακών. The form *μαλάκων is genitive plural of *μάλακας. The two words do not exist.
 * compare to the other genitive in Category:Greek disputed terms: των κοτών. This is also 'not used at all', but the form is correct, disupted or not.

18-Oct-2018

 * Redirected to μαλακών — Salt  marsh . 17:48, 18 October 2018 (UTC)