Talk:οὗτος

οὗτός
's 1551 New Testament in parallel translation uses — with both the dasia and perispomene on the upsilon and the oxia on the second omicron — in the Greek version of Matthew 13:55 (Οὐχ οὗτός ἔστιν τοῦ τέκτονος υἱός;). Is this correct usage? Or is this kind of double-accenting always improper? If the former, does the presence of two tone marks on οὗτός denote something different from the usual ? — I.S.M.E.T.A. 18:48, 5 October 2014 (UTC)


 * Acronym: It's improper for "οὖτός έστιν", where the latter word is here an enclitic. —ObsequiousNewt (εἴρηκα|πεποίηκα) 18:43, 30 September 2015 (UTC)


 * I had actually already kind-of learnt this by now, but thanks anyway for the confirmation. — I.S.M.E.T.A. 20:50, 30 September 2015 (UTC)