Talk:կեսար

Etymology
Isn't it from Parthian, rather than Ancient Greek? --Z 19:13, 1 April 2014 (UTC)
 * I thought that too, but Ačaṙyan says is a scholarly borrowing from Greek, whereas  is the old popular form. The latter may even be directly from Latin.
 * He is probably right, as is attested mainly in Hellenophile authors. In one attested passage even the Greek case ending is mimicked—irregular accusative  = accusative . --Vahag (talk) 19:51, 1 April 2014 (UTC)