Talk:շահպրակ

Persian
, is Vullers saying the Persian -r- forms are due to the misreading of waw as resh? I don't understand his abbreviations and Latin. Vahag (talk) 22:06, 19 July 2024 (UTC)
 * In Vullers gives for the   defined as i.q. “the same as”  defined previously by him  a verse also given by the Ferheng Suʕūrī (فرهنگ شعوری) from which he gathers the entry and says that “in this lexicon however for  falsely  is read”, which apparently means that Vullers does not believe in a word  or  added to the king-morpheme meaning either amber or stock, though I instantly find it in an Ottoman private print of the very same Ferheng, what ever it says, perhaps  freely variated with  in living language, with a focus on either “a spirit”, “a witch”, “a fairy”, “a fair woman” ( or “scent”  according to preference. It might mean that the middle form  is not true, but this variant could have had an independent life, like  existed then only explained by tradition rather than by morphologic transparence. But this is only for idealized Persian speakers themselves, not for Turks or Armenians who knew only enough Persian to appear educated, certainly not the complete Iranian flora.


 * So we are at the end of a textual variant complex in which people didn’t know what is true any more. Should we believe in   as an alt form of ? Fay Freak (talk) 23:09, 19 July 2024 (UTC)


 * Well, I have resolved your unease about the r, this more likely occurred to an Armenian. Fay Freak (talk) 23:34, 19 July 2024 (UTC)