Talk:עין הרע


 * And here's where I'm curious about the gender of the Hebrew term. —Μετάknowledge discuss/deeds 18:40, 22 March 2017 (UTC)
 * It's a tricky question. is normally feminine, so if you interpret this expression as noun+adjective, then you would expect indefinite  and definite . So there are a few possibilities:
 * It's actually noun+noun. Which would mean the correct vocalization should technically be and the phrase is feminine and definite.
 * It really is noun+adjective with improper definiteness agreement (which itself could have a number of explanations):
 * happens to be masculine in this phrase, making the whole phrase masculine.
 * Simply improper gender agreement, leaving the gender of the phrase unclear.
 * The had ceased to be pronounced making  and  homonymous, and this phrase feminine.
 * To learn more, we would need to know where this spelling first originated, whether there are spelling variations in other manuscripts, etc. --WikiTiki89 19:11, 22 March 2017 (UTC)
 * That was interesting, thank you. But how is it used in modern Hebrew (i.e., what should we put in the entry)? —Μετάknowledge discuss/deeds 22:47, 22 March 2017 (UTC)
 * Neither Morfix nor Even-Shoshan gives a gender. I guess we'll have to do this empirically. --WikiTiki89 15:04, 23 March 2017 (UTC)
 * That's how I got the Yiddish gender! —Μετάknowledge discuss/deeds 18:17, 23 March 2017 (UTC)
 * It's hard to find cases where the gender is evident, but out of the three uses I found so far, all three are feminine:
 * הוּא מֻבְטָח שֶׁשׁוּם עַיִן הָרַע לֹא תִּשְׁלֹט בּוֹ
 * עין הרע אורבת בתליון הזה!
 * בזרעו של יוסף אינה שולטת עין הרע
 * --WikiTiki89 18:49, 23 March 2017 (UTC)