Talk:गार्जर

Etymology
, the Persian form is too similar to the New IA forms and thus this relation may be a recent borrowing and not actually go back to PII. If we reconstruct a PII, we encounter formal problems as Persian would not drop the r and shorten the long ā. I'm suspicious of this and the / pair as there are no Old Iranian cognates mentioned. Lastly, and very interestingly, the word "" is not actually attested and finds mention solely in the lexicographers' lists which makes it plausible that it was perhaps hypercorrected into Sanskrit at a later time. I'd like to know what thinks. -- माधवपंडित (talk) 01:43, 20 March 2018 (UTC)
 * I will look at this in more detail tomorrow, but the key reason some reconstruct Proto-Indo-European for this is the alteration between and . Turner says this reflects 🇨🇬 (which as we know became long in lengthened syllables in PIIr). I'm not really convinced of PIE (or even PIIr) status as of now, but I'll look more. —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान) 02:46, 20 March 2018 (UTC)