Talk:ᚔᚅᚓᚊᚐᚌᚂᚐᚄ

is it the genitive or the nominative? or both?
this site suggests the name should have ended in -i, implying that it's a genitive, and that the Primitive Irish spelling was already changing even then. If this is the case, we dont have a lemma, but only an inflected form of one. Unless we know enough of Primitive Irish grammar to say that in this case the nominative and genitive would be the same. Best wishes, — Soap — 20:14, 19 January 2024 (UTC)


 * yes, the nominative should historically (in 4th c. Prim.Ir.) have additional -AS, but in the inscription (following AVI ‘of the descendant (of)’) the expected form would be genitive in -I, it has neither. But also, yes, the endings were lost during the monumental ogam period (and there are lots of inscription with some parts of inflection missing) while also no new system of broad vs slender consonants marking had developed (like it did later in Old Irish). Actually most of stuff we have from ogam is not lemma forms.
 * I haven’t been editing Primitive Irish here, but I believe we have both attested forms mentioned in the main namespace and also the lemmata under Reconstruction? It should probably be mentioned that this one’s a genitive after apocope (and without slender quality on the consonant marked). // Silmeth @talk 20:25, 19 January 2024 (UTC)
 * See Lemmas; we actually decided to call the genitive singular the lemma form for Primitive Irish since for the majority of nouns, that's either the only attested or the best attested form. —Mahāgaja · talk 20:58, 19 January 2024 (UTC)