Talk:ἔφαγον

It would be helpful if anyone could find out how PIE "to distribute, allot, cut etc." exactly shifted to "to eat, devour". --Ivan Štambuk (talk) 18:19, 25 July 2013 (UTC)

The translation
, thank you Sir, for fixing the head here, pointed out by M Latvvot so nicely and detailed at Feedback (thank you!). Now,... I know about translations of greek verbs with to... to.. I understand this tradition for normal verbs. But, would it not be the moment for an exception? ate, devoured...? The dictionaries just give a redirect. People might not see the past marking at the head. Of course, you should do what is a rule for en.wikt. I will understand. &#8209;&#8209;Sarri.greek &#9835; I 08:05, 13 March 2024 (UTC)


 * We're using as a lemma form to stand for all forms, including the future, so I think it makes sense to use the English infinitive in the gloss. The Inflection section tells us that this particular form is an aorist and that the future also exists. —Mahāgaja · talk 08:12, 13 March 2024 (UTC)