Talk:ὑπάγω

Why is this defined like an infinitive verb? --Æ&#38;Œ (talk) 06:08, 2 January 2014 (UTC)


 * That is a very reasonable question, and one which I have gone back and forth on a few times. Simply put, this entry is not the entry for ὑπάγω, rather it is the entry for ὑπάγω and all of the other inflected forms, viewed collectively.  The convention is to put English lemma entries at the infinitive and Ancient Greek lemma entries at the PAI1S, but in both cases the entry defines the word collectively.  Similarly, when I give an English translation at the lemma entry of an Ancient Greek verb, I am giving one which deliberately does not take inflection into account.  -Atelaes λάλει ἐμοί 06:33, 2 January 2014 (UTC)

small correction Pres.Imper.
from sarri.greek 2017.10.31. Present Imperative not υπάγε. But ύπαγε. (sorry to bother you, but i do not know how to correct it.) Thanks, sarri.greek (talk) 08:13, 31 October 2017 (UTC)
 * example: surviving expression in modern greek from the New Testament. Matthew 4.10? ύπαγε οπίσω μου σατανά!
 * the New Test. is full of 'ύπαγε'. cf. list of occurences @biblehub
 * manually, but hopefully someone will improve the template, which should understand this accent rule. --Barytonesis (talk) 08:24, 31 October 2017 (UTC)

from sarri: thank you. you are so fast! sarri.greek (talk) 08:28, 31 October 2017 (UTC)