Talk:apparently

In contemporary use, is this ever used other than as a modal adverb? The Shakespeare quote shows a manner use that seems archaic to me. Even when used to modify an adjective, it seems to be a modal adverb positioned to emphasis a particular actual or implied clause.

Consider: "The waiter spilled sauce on his apparently new jacket." Semantically, it is clear that the "apparently" is a comment on how to interpret the knowledge being offered about the jacket being "new". It is almost parenthetical, grammatically: "The waiter spilled sauce on his jacket. (Which I know to be true) (It was all the worse because the jacket looked new, though I don't know for sure. So you might find his reaction more understandable.)"

I am interested in whether all uses of modal adverbs can be deemed "clausal". CGEL would have it so. But it requires imputation of an implied clause, which departs a bit far from the surface grammar. DCDuring TALK * Holiday Greetings! 17:00, 28 December 2009 (UTC)
 * Agreed. I have added an "archaic" tag for now. ---&#62; Tooironic (talk) 01:46, 28 March 2016 (UTC)