Talk:me neither

I don't think it expresses agreement so much as states that the previous negative statement applies to oneself as well. Siuenti (talk) 20:00, 22 June 2012 (UTC)
 * Me neither, at least not exclusively. I think your reading is right too. Feel free to expand it, possibly with another definition line and usage example. DCDuring TALK 22:20, 22 June 2012 (UTC)


 * In British English this is rarely used. We tend to say "nor (neither) am I", "nor (neither) do I", "...have I", "...did I", "...would I", etc., depending on the verb in the original sentence. I don't know if that's comparable ("neither am I" does resemble "me neither") but it supports your suggestion. Equinox ◑ 22:27, 22 June 2012 (UTC)
 * All of those are used in American English, too, but with in a more formal register.
 * Both me too and me neither should have both the "I agree with you" and "That applies to me too" senses. DCDuring TALK 23:19, 22 June 2012 (UTC)
 * @Siuenti: You're right, I was wrong. I'll change it. Take a look and make sure I've got it right. I blame the heat for my brain not working quite right. DCDuring TALK 23:22, 22 June 2012 (UTC)

always /ˈniːð.ə(ɹ)/ ?
Here "neither| is always pronounced /ˈniːð.ə(ɹ)/, not ˈnaɪð.ə(ɹ)/, right? Siuenti (talk) 21:09, 27 April 2016 (UTC)
 * In my dialect, the two are in free variation, but the /i/ in me always forces this phrase to use /i/ in neither as well, like a kind of vowel harmony. —Μετάknowledge discuss/deeds 21:22, 27 April 2016 (UTC)