Talk:pathologie

I think that the etymology section implies that "pathology" existed in ancient Greece. However, as far as I know, even the word "παθολογια" didn't exist, and it is a 15th-century neologism. What are your thoughts about it? Do you think that there should be an alteration to show that historical perspective of the word? I would love to see some citation for the existence of the word in ancient Greek, but even if it did exist, I don't think that matters, because the word was made to show the usage of the ancient Greek way of thinking to explain and study diseases and medicine in general. In my opinion, it needs some more explanation. Thank you.
 * We count Byzantine usage under the "Ancient Greek" header (with appropriate labelling). For the purposes of etymology, if this term is not attested before the 15th century, we should replace the code  with   — it will point to the same place, but refer to it as Byzantine. —Μετάknowledge discuss/deeds 19:09, 11 April 2019 (UTC)