Talk:venio

Please, check latin pronunciation. This is not winio, it's wEnio. Like in pEt, like in tech, like in red. Not like in peek, or sheet, or teeth.

Please, please, check it in www.forvo.com, listen to an italian pronunce it, listen to an spanish speaker. I love english, but this is latin.

Any case, dont say its classical pronunciation. Maybe its ecclesiastic latin, all right. But Cicero suffers greatly each time i listen to this vInio thing. It really hurts, badly.

Do something. Please.

Thanks

Passive forms
There are no plural passive forms such as veniuntur, venirentur, but we don't seem to have any template that would match exactly the conjugation. --Fsojic (talk) 21:06, 8 February 2014 (UTC)

RFD discussion: August 2013–February 2014
Hello,

The "passive" forms of (venior, etc., apart from the third person that can be used impersonally) should be deleted, since it's a intransitive verb. I have tagged the wrong forms with the appropriate template. --Fsojic (talk) 17:46, 21 August 2013 (UTC)


 * Deleted. - -sche (discuss) 07:13, 7 February 2014 (UTC)

Pronunciation of the venire in the first-person, singular present conjugation
Maybe some linguistic knows this better than me, but I feel that the pronunciation should be "wen-yo" rather than "wen-eeo" because of the evidence we have from living languages now. If we look, the conjugation in Portuguese is venho ("ven-yo") and vengo ("ven-go") in Spanish, so it wouldn't seem to make logical sense for it to be "wen-eeo" because then it wouldn't be like this in the languages that currently live. Tenere also has this same pattern in Latin, Spanish, and Portuguese. We can apply this logic to many other words as well. For example, Hispania becomes España in Spanish and Espanha in Portuguese, both with the pronunciation of a "ya" rather than "eea". Maybe my reasoning has some flaws, but this seems to make the most sense. LittleOsorio (talk) 21:58, 22 June 2018 (UTC)

I meant to write linguist, not linguistic LittleOsorio (talk) 21:58, 22 June 2018 (UTC)

Past perfect: Vēnī or Vēni
Some other dictionaries seem to have vēni rather than vēnī: is the declension model here correct, is it disputed, should this be mentioned? For an example of vēni see http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0059:entry=venio ; for an example of vēnī see https://latinlexicon.org/definition.php?p1=1017306  JimKillock (talk) 16:17, 12 August 2019 (UTC)
 * I think these dictionaries (such as Lewis and Short) omit the macron on the i because the first-person singular perfect indicative always has a long ī. You will see that they do not write vēnĭ with a breve, which they would do if they were asserting that the i was short. — Eru·tuon 16:31, 12 August 2019 (UTC)