Thread:User talk:CodeCat/PGmc prepositions and adverbs/reply (6)

I've been trying to find a likely source for it, to maybe come at it from the other direction. Not much luck though. The endings themselves are hard to pin down.

A locative ending in *-oy seems easy to understand, as Ringe says this was a normalized thematic locative ending in some of the daughter languages including Germanic. But I can't understand why one form which supposedly took these suffixes, *upon-, would keep the -o- while the other, *upnóy, would not.

If the ending for *uban- was actually *-neh₁, then wouldn't that more than likely have been an instrumental ending, rather than ablative? The Wikipedia page on instrumental case mentions that in Sanskrit the instrumental case was used with the preposition vínā, if that is indeed related. But maybe I'm seeing more there than there actually is.

Also, is it possible the form *eup- was the original allative form, where Northwest Germanic analogized it out, maybe Gothic went the other way?