Thread:User talk:CodeCat/Thanks.

I appreciate your responding to my question. I've always appreciated (even when I might be gravitating away from a language, and thus be interested neither in studying it, nor learning it) to know why (in some more closely related languages) one stays relatively fine, whilst another devolves into a sort of degenerate tongue.

For bisen, compare Danish and Swedish. Danish is the more conservative tongue, while Swedish is the more licentious. Other (less closely related, yet still enough so) examples of this include:

FROM WESTERN IBERIAN ROMANCE: Portuguese (conservative) Spanish (licentious)

FROM GOIDELIC: Manx (conservative) Irish (licentious) Scottish Gaelic (even more licentious)

FROM LES LANGUES D'OÏl: Norman (conservative) French (licentious)

The only thing I can think of is maybe the higher population of the licentious languages is due to their greater acceptance of barbarisms, while the more conservative tongues maintain a smaller group of those people who wish to retain an older form of speech.

In addition, the total area may come into play (as) due to the inevitable dialectual diffusion over a larger area... y'know...

What do you think? Tharthan (talk) 02:25, 21 September 2013 (UTC)