Thread:User talk:Internoob/British Isles. Is that term obsolete or still popular?/reply (2)

In cases where a legal idea is being described using a term that the law does not formally use, is it ok to note that its not a formal legal term. For example the term age of consent is never used by states/governments, although obviously it is a real concept in the sense that adults are not allowed to have sex with children, its not a term that appears in government/state usage ever, and Malke2010 criticized me for using the term on English wikipedia, pointing out that its not a term that appears in any laws. Its a real concept, but the term is not actually used by the governments, so I thought that should at least be pointed out in "usage notes". Another example is that the British Empire was not an actual legal entity the way the United States of America and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics were, there was never a constitutionally organized called the British Empire, it was just a way people informally described the combination of the Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland (later just Northern Ireland) and its colonies, dominions, and crown dependencies. Is it ok to note discrepancies like that between formal legal terminology and how its informally described?